Does something being legal under a human system mean that the same thing is right before God?

    Many people try to excuse their actions which may violate God’s commands by saying that such acts are legal in the eyes of our government, and therefore they must be right (e.g. gambling, adultery, homosexuality, abortion, drinking, etc.)  The answer is that God’s law is greater than those of man are, furthermore His law is universal and will serve to judge all men.  This means that any act that violates God’s law in any way is wrong no matter how many human systems may condone such an act.
    We could list numerous verses to support that all of the above sins violate commands of God, and we have done some of that in some past articles.  Let it be shown though, by an example that we would all agree upon, that mans law and God’s law are not equal.  Before I go to that example let me first state that man MUST follow the laws of the land (Romans 13:1) as long as those laws do not make him do things that are wrong in God’s eyes.  Furthermore one is not allowed to become a law unto himself, as in the cases of those who would bomb abortion clinics.  Any wrong is sin!  Man’s law should, again, only be broken when it causes the person to act against God’s law (e.g. if the government made women get abortions then the law of man would have to be broken).
    Now for the promised example:  In Germany, in the days preceding and of World War II, was it allowed by German law to murder millions of Jews and others who were seen as undesirable?  Yes.  But was it allowable under God’s law?  No.  Man’s law in that case could not supercede God’s law!  We must realize that the case mentioned here is different only in scope from any attempt on man’s part to try to say his act is right, while wrong in God’s eyes, because it does not violate the laws of the land in which he lives.
    To sum it up:  Man cannot sin against God and then before Him in judgement call to any standard other than God’s Word!