This question is actually going to serve as the basis for a number of questions and answers to come.  At the outset it must be noted that all that we will ever need in the realm of religion is found in God’s Word (II Peter 1:3-note the past tense-“According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue:”), and any who add anything else should be accursed (Galatians 1:8,9-“But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.  As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.”).  Despite this plain Bible teaching, there are some that believe that the Pope is completely infallible with reference to introducing doctrine, etc.  With this in mind let us address the question is the Pope, who claims to be at least on par with God, infallible?
    While the Popes claim infallibility, this is actually a very new idea.  “Pope Pius IX called the Vatican Council in 1869 for the express purpose of declaring himself infallible, against a very stubborn opposition in the hierarchy” (Catholicism Against Itself, vol. II).  In fact, it was only introduced into the Catholic creed in the next year.  It appears that the idea that the Pope is infallible is some sort of latter day revelation.  If this is the case then according to II Peter 1:3; Galatians 1:8,9 the idea of papal infallibility should be wholly rejected.
    It is interesting that the Catholic Encyclopedia itself tries to qualify the doctrine of Papal infallibility on its official web site.  That site lists numerous qualifications to the idea, including, “infallibility is not attributed to every doctrinal act of the pope.”  I would think that if someone were infallible in one location then they would be infallible in all.  Or if infallible at one time, infallible at all.  If one is not infallible in “every doctrinal act,” then they are as fallible as you or I, for anyone, even an atheist, can quote scripture and be correct part of the time in so doing.  The truth is that this doctrine of infallibility was an extra-Biblical addition to an un-Biblical position.
    One final note, that same site states that infallibility “was promised directly to Peter, and to each of Peter's successors in the primacy.”  I challenge anyone to find that in Scripture.  Next week we shall address the question of whether Peter was the first Pope, or more basically can the papacy be traced back to the Bible at all?